Surgery>>>>>The Appendix
Question 11#

A 34-year-old man undergoes an uneventful appendectomy for acute, non perforated appendicitis. The pathology report notes reads: acute inflammation with a 1-cm adenocarcinoma of the mid appendix. This patient should have:

a. No further treatment
b. Chemotherapy
c. Regional radiation
d. Right hemicolectomy
e. Ileocecectomy

Correct Answer is D


Primary adenocarcinoma of the appendix is rare. Three types of adenocarcinoma exist; mucinous, colonic, and adenocarcinoid. The most common presentation of adenocarcinoma is acute appendicitis. The recommended treatment for all patients diagnosed with adenocarcinoma is a formal right hemicolectomy. Patients are at risk for both synchronous and metachronous neoplasms-half of which will originate in the GI tract.