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Question 25#

An 18-year-old male patient has been seen in the clinic for urethral discharge. He is treated with ceftriaxone, but the discharge has not resolved and the culture has returned as no growth. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent to cause this infection?

A) Ceftriaxone-resistant gonococci
B) Chlamydia psittaci
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Herpes simplex
E) Chlamydia pneumoniae

Correct Answer is C

Comment:

About half of all cases of nongonococcal urethritis are caused by C trachomatis. Ureaplasma urealyticum and Trichomonas vaginalis are rarer causes of urethritis. Herpes simplex would present with vesicular lesions and pain, not with a meatal discharge. C psittaci is the etiologic agent in psittacosis. Almost all gonococci are susceptible to ceftriaxone at recommended doses.