Obstetrics & Gynecology>>>>>Normal and Abnormal Labor and Delivery
Question 1#

A 20-year-old G1 at 38 weeks’ gestation presents with regular painful contractions every 3 to 4 minutes lasting 60 seconds. On pelvic examination, she is 3-cm dilated and 90% effaced; an amniotomy is performed and clear fluid is noted. The patient receives epidural analgesia for pain management. The fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing is reactive. One hour later on repeat examination, her cervix is 5-cm dilated and 100% effaced.

For the description of labor, select the most appropriate next step in management.

a. Initiate Pitocin augmentation
b. Place an intrauterine pressure catheter (IUPC)
c. Perform a cesarean delivery
d. Place a fetal scalp electrode
e. No intervention; labor is progressing normally

Correct Answer is E

Comment:

Patient has normal labor; no intervention is needed at this time.