Obstetrics & Gynecology>>>>>Human Sexuality and Contraception
Question 10#

A 22-year-old woman presents to your office for a well-woman examination. She has been sexually active with one male partner for the past year. She is concerned because she has not achieved orgasm with her partner. On further questioning, she reveals that she has never achieved orgasm with any other partners, or with masturbation or the use of a vibrator.

Which of the following statements correctly describes her condition?

a. It is unrelated to partner behavior
b. The influence of religious beliefs is a major etiology
c. It is unrelated to partner’s sexual performance
d. It is not associated with a history of rape
e. It always has an underlying physical etiology

Correct Answer is B

Comment:

Many factors can contribute to the development of primary orgasmic dysfunction in women. By definition, these women will not have been able to achieve orgasm through any means at any time in their lives; reasons for their dysfunction can include the influence of orthodox religious or rigid familial beliefs, dissatisfaction with their partner’s behavioral or social traits, or past trauma such as rape. Sexual dysfunction, particularly premature ejaculation in a male partner, can reinforce a woman’s orgasmic dysfunction.