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Category: Obstetrics & Gynecology--->Preconception Counseling, Genetics, and Prenatal Diagnosis
Page: 4

Question 16# Print Question

A 24-year-old white woman has a maternal serum α-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level at 17 weeks’ gestation of 6.0 multiples of the median (MOM). She had an ultrasound the same day that appeared normal. 

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Offer her a second MSAFP test
B. Reassure her that the baby does not have a neural tube defect (NTD)
C. Recommend an amniocentesis
D. Perform an amniography
E. Offer her termination of pregnancy due to a lethal fetal anomaly


Question 17# Print Question

A 24-year-old white woman has a maternal serum α-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level at 17 weeks’ gestation of 6.0 multiples of the median (MOM). She had an ultrasound the same day that appeared normal.

The fetus is confirmed to have an open NTD with a diagnosis of spina bifida.

What is the most appropriate counseling for this woman regarding future pregnancies?

A. She has a 50% risk of having an affected child in the future, because anencephaly is an autosomal dominant trait
B. She has a decreased risk of having another baby with anencephaly because she is younger than 30 years of age
C. When she becomes pregnant, she should undergo diagnostic testing for fetal NTDs with a first-trimester CVS
D. Prior to becoming pregnant again she should begin folic acid supplementation
E. She has a recurrence risk of having another baby with a NTD of less than 1%


Question 18# Print Question

A 24-year-old white woman has a maternal serum α-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level at 17 weeks’ gestation of 6.0 multiples of the median (MOM). She had an ultrasound the same day that appeared normal.

The patient asks how the diagnosis of spina bifida will impact her obstetric management and delivery. You should counsel her that:

A. She should be delivered by cesarean to prevent damage to the open NTD
B. She should be delivered preterm to improve fetal neurologic outcomes
C. She should be delivered in a tertiary care facility with a neonatal intensive care unit and personnel capable of managing the spinal defect and any immediate complications
D. She should plan to deliver vaginally, even if the fetus is breech, as this will limit trauma to the defect
E. She should be referred to a specialized center to undergo fetal surgery to close the NTD


Question 19# Print Question

A 41-year-old woman had a baby with Down syndrome 10 years ago. She is anxious to know the chromosome status of fetus in her current pregnancy. She is currently at 8 weeks of gestation.

Which of the following tests will provide the most rapid and reliable diagnosis of Down syndrome? 

A. Amniocentesis
B. Multiple maternal serum marker analysis (Quad Screen)
C. Chorionic villi sampling (CVS)
D. First trimester screening using nuchal fold measurements and maternal serum markers
E. Cell free fetal DNA testing


Question 20# Print Question

A 44-year-old pregnant woman is trying to choose CVS versus amniocentesis for prenatal diagnosis due to her increased risk of having a child with a chromosomal anomaly.

Which of the following is an advantage of amniocentesis over CVS?

A. Amniocentesis can be performed earlier in pregnancy than CVS
B. First-trimester amniocentesis has a lower complication rate than CVS
C. A second-trimester diagnosis of an abnormal karyotype afforded by amniocentesis allows for safer options for termination of pregnancy if desired by the patient
D. Mid-trimester amniocentesis has a lower complication rate than CVS
E. Amniocentesis in any trimester is less painful than CVS




Category: Obstetrics & Gynecology--->Preconception Counseling, Genetics, and Prenatal Diagnosis
Page: 4 of 11