Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

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Category: Obstetrics & Gynecology--->Benign and Malignant Disorders of the Breast and Pelvis
Page: 1

Question 1# Print Question

A 21-year-old woman presents with left lower quadrant pain. An anterior 7-cm firm adnexal mass is palpated. Ultrasound confirms a complex left adnexal mass with solid components that appears to contain a tooth.

What percentage of these tumors is bilateral?

A. Less than 1
B. 2 to 3
C. 10
D. 50
E. Greater than 75

Question 2# Print Question

A 54-year-old woman is scheduled for laparotomy due to a pelvic mass. At the time of exploratory laparotomy, a unilateral ovarian neoplasm is discovered that is accompanied by a large omental metastasis. Frozen section diagnosis confirms metastatic serous cystadenocarcinoma.

Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative course of action? 

A. Excision of the omental metastasis and ovarian cystectomy
B. Omentectomy and ovarian cystectomy
C. Excision of the omental metastasis and unilateral oophorectomy
D. Omentectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
E. Omentectomy, total abdominal hysterectomy, and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

Question 3# Print Question

A 68-year-old woman is seen for evaluation of a swelling in the right, posterior aspect of her vaginal opening. She has noted pain in this area when walking and during intercourse. At the time of pelvic examination, a mildly tender, firm mass is noted just outside the introitus in the right vulva at approximately 8 o’clock.

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A. Marsupialization
B. Administration of antibiotics
C. Surgical excision
D. Incision and drainage
E. Observation

Question 4# Print Question

A 51-year-old woman is diagnosed with invasive cervical carcinoma by cone biopsy. Pelvic examination and rectal-vaginal examination reveal the parametrium to be free of disease, but the upper portion of the vagina is involved with tumor. Intravenous pyelography (IVP) and sigmoidoscopy are negative, but a computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows grossly enlarged pelvic and periaortic nodes.

This patient is classified at which of the following stages?

A. IIa
B. IIb

Question 5# Print Question

A 45-year-old G1P1 presents for her routine annual examination. The patient is a healthy smoker who has no medical problems. Her surgical history is significant for a cesarean delivery with bilateral tubal interruption. You perform a Pap smear, which returns showing high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL). She undergoes colposcopy, which is inadequate.

What is the next step in management?

A. Repeat Pap smear in 6 months
B. HPV testing
C. Cone biopsy
D. Repeat Pap smear with co-testing in 1 year
E. Repeat the colposcopy in 4 to 6 months

Category: Obstetrics & Gynecology--->Benign and Malignant Disorders of the Breast and Pelvis
Page: 1 of 12