Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

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Category: Prometric--->OBGYN
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Question 1# Print Question

Which of the following is not associated with Intrauterine Growth Retardation?

A. Absence of fetal weight gain
B. Maternal short stature
C. Low fundal height
D. Maternal cigarette smoking
E. Decreased blood flow in the uterus and placenta

Question 2# Print Question

A 25-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation is thought to be small for dates by her physician and is sent for a sonographic evaluation. The ultrasound shows the biparietal diameter to be appropriate for 30 weeks gestation. The abdominal circumference is appropriate for 26 weeks gestation. The head:abdominal circumference ratio is > 1. The estimated fetal weight is < 10th percentile for 34 weeks gestation. The amniotic fluid is decreased.

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Symmetrical Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
B. Asymmetrical Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
C. Congenital anomaly
D. Congenital infection
E. Unknown gestational age

Question 3# Print Question

The most common maternal cause of fetal growth restriction is:

A. Chronic hypertension
B. Alcohol intake
C. Autoimmune disease
D. Fetal aneuploidy
E. Multiple gestation

Question 4# Print Question

A 34-year-old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy.

Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?

A. Atenolol (Tenormin)
B. Nimodipine (Nimotop)
C. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
D. Hydralazine (Apresoline)
E. Nifedipine (Procardia, Adalat)

Question 5# Print Question

A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, with chronic hypertension, is at 38 weeks gestation. Ultrasound examination shows an amniotic fluid index of 4 cm and an estimated fetal weight below the 10th percentile. A nonstress test (NST) is nonreactive with absent variability, and a subsequent contraction stress test (CST) is positive. Her Bishop score is 4.

Which of the following should be the next step in managing this patient?

A. Cordocentesis for fetal karyotype
B. Cordocentesis for fetal blood pH
C. Biophysical profile
D. Immediate delivery
E. Repeat contraction stress test in 1 week

Category: Prometric--->OBGYN
Page: 1 of 1