An obese man presents as he is concerned about his risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Which one of the following sets of results would suggest a diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome using the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) criteria?
Correct Answer D: Whilst all the results contain at least one factor consistent with the metabolic syndrome only option D contains three of the criteria and would hence support a diagnosis.
Metabolic syndrome: Unfortunately there are a number of competing definitions of the metabolic syndrome around at the present time. It is thought that the key pathophysiological factor is insulin resistance.
SIGN recommend using criteria similar to those from the American Heart Association. The similarity of the International Diabetes Federation criteria should be noted. For a diagnosis of metabolic syndrome at least 3 of the following should be identified:
The International Diabetes Federation produced a consensus set of diagnostic criteria in 2005, which are now widely in use. These require the presence of central obesity (defined as waist circumference > 94cm for Europid men and > 80cm for Europid women, with ethnicity specific values for other groups) plus any two of the following four factors:
In 1999 the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria which required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, AND two of the following:
Other associated features include:
Each one of the following is associated with Pendred's syndrome, except:
Correct Answer B:
Pendred's syndrome: Autosomal recessive disorder of defective iodine uptake.
Features:
A 62-year-old man is investigated for hypertension and proximal myopathy. On examination he is noted to have abdominal striae.
Which one of the following is most associated with ectopic ACTH secretion?
Correct Answer B: Small cell lung cancer accounts 50-75% of case of ectopic ACTH.
Adrenal carcinoma and cardiac myxoma are causes of ACTH independent Cushing's syndrome.
Cushing's syndrome: causes:
ACTH dependent causes:
ACTH independent causes:
Pseudo-Cushing's:
Which one of the following combinations of treatments should be avoided in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer A: Exenatide should only be used in combination with metformin, a sulfonylurea or both.
Diabetes mellitus: management of type 2: NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2009. Key points are listed below:
Dietary advice:
HbA1c:
Blood pressure:
The NICE treatment algorithm has become much more complicated following the introduction of new therapies for type 2 diabetes. We suggest reviewing this using the link provided. Below is a very selected group of points from the algorithm:
Starting insulin:
Other risk factor modification:
*many local protocols now recommend starting metformin upon diagnosis.
A 55-year-old accountant with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes for review. When he was diagnosed 12 months ago he was started on metformin and the dose was titrated up. His IFCC-HbA1c one year ago was 75 mmol/mol (DCCT-HbA1c 9%) and is now 69 mmol/mol (8.5%). His body mass index is 33 kg/m².
What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer C: His HbA1c is still significantly above target so some change to the medication is indicated. The NICE type 2 diabetes mellitus guidelines would advocate the use of a sulfonylurea in this situation. This may seem slightly counter intuitive as it may increase the weight of a patient who is already obese. Why not use exenatide? However the average weight gain for a patient taking a sulfonylurea is 2 kg. It is likely the view of NICE that this modest weight gain does not offset the increased cost, need to involve secondary care and current lack of data surrounding cardiovascular endpoints of exenatide.
Diabetes mellitus: management of type 2:
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2009. Key points are listed below: