A 23-year-old woman is diagnosed with Graves' disease.
Which one of the following statements regarding treatment is correct?
Correct Answer A: Graves' disease: management: Despite many trials there is no clear guidance on the optimal management of Graves' disease. Treatment options include titration of anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs, for example carbimazole), block-andreplace regimes, radioiodine treatment and surgery. Propranolol is often given initially to block adrenergic effects.
ATD titration:
Block-and-replace:
Radioiodine treatment:
A 30-year-old female is started on carbimazole 20mg bd following a diagnosis of Grave's disease.
What is the best biochemical marker to assess her response to treatment?
Correct Answer B: The answer the College are looking for is TSH. There is however a significant proportion of patients for whom TSH monitoring alone is insufficient. TSH may remain suppressed for several weeks as continued production of thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins seen in Grave's disease reduces the need for the pituitary to secrete TSH.
Thyrotoxicosis: Graves' disease accounts for around 50-60% of cases of thyrotoxicosis.
Causes:
Investigation:
A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is reviewed in clinic. He is currently taking pioglitazone, metformin, aspirin and simvastatin.
Which one of the following problems is most likely to be caused by pioglitazone?
Correct Answer D:
Thiazolidinediones: Thiazolidinediones are a new class of agents used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus. They are agonists to the PPAR-gamma receptor and reduce peripheral insulin resistance. Rosiglitazone was withdrawn in 2010 following concerns about the cardiovascular side-effect profile.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is an intracellular nuclear receptor. Its natural ligands are free fatty acids and it is thought to control adipocyte differentiation and function.
Adverse effects:
NICE guidance on thiazolidinediones:
A 52-year-old has a fasting lipid profile checked as part of an annual occupational health check. Combined with his blood pressure and current smoking status his 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease is calculated to be 23% percent. Following appropriate counseling he chooses to start simvastatin 40mg on.
What should his target cholesterol be?
Correct Answer C: In primary prevention of CVD, a target cholesterol is not appropriate.
Hyperlipidaemia: management: In 2008 NICE issued guidelines on lipid modification. Key points are summarised below.
Primary prevention: A systematic strategy should be used to identify people aged 40-74 who are likely to be at high risk of cardiovascular disease (CVD), defined as a 10-year risk of 20% or greater.
NICE updated their lipid guidelines so that the following risk models are valid:
The 1991 Framingham equations may still be used. It is however recommended that adjustments are made in the following situations:
Along with lifestyle changes drug treatment should be considered for patients with a 10-year CVD risk of 20% or greater:
Secondary prevention: All patients with CVD should be taking a statin in the absence of any contraindication NICE recommend increasing simvastatin to 80mg if a total cholesterol of less than 4 mmol/litre or an LDL cholesterol of less than 2 mmol/litre is not attained.
Which one of the following increases the risk of developing peripheral oedema in a patient taking pioglitazone?
Correct Answer C: Thiazolidinediones: Thiazolidinediones are a new class of agents used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus. They are agonists to the PPAR-gamma receptor and reduce peripheral insulin resistance. Rosiglitazone was withdrawn in 2010 following concerns about the cardiovascular side-effect profile.