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Category: Emergency Medicine--->Surgical Emergencies
Page: 2

Question 6# Print Question

Which ONE of the following is the MOST common reason for large bowel/colonic obstruction?

A. Adhesions
B. Neoplasms
C. Hernias
D. Diverticulitis


Question 7# Print Question

A 69-year-old man presents to the ED with abdominal bloating over the past 4 hours. He has severe generalized abdominal pain and nausea but no vomiting. He has been unable to pass flatus for several hours. An abdominal X-ray demonstrates a large dilated loop of bowel that extends from the pelvis towards the right upper quadrant and looks like a bent inner tube. Multiple air fluid levels are seen within the small bowel loops.

Which ONE of the statements below describes the MOST appropriate management?

A. IV fluids, nil by mouth, nasogastric tube insertion and triple antibiotics
B. IV fluids, nil by mouth, nasogastric tube insertion referral for laparotomy
C. IV fluids, nil by mouth, nasogastric tube insertion, sigmoidoscopy and insertion of a rectal tube
D. IV fluids, nil by mouth, nasogastric tube insertion, contrast enema


Question 8# Print Question

Use of bedside ultrasound for detecting abdominal aortic aneurysm in the ED is becoming increasingly common.

Which ONE of the following statements pertaining to this is TRUE?

A. Emergency clinicians with relatively limited training can reliably detect an abdominal aortic aneurysm
B. The lumen of the aorta should be measured from inner wall to inner wall
C. The probe selected should have a frequency of 7–12 mHz
D. Bedside ultrasound can reliably exclude a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm


Question 9# Print Question

Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) are at risk of rupture. Which ONE of the following statements is most CORRECT?

A. Risk of rupture is increased in women, nonsmokers and increasing age
B. Most patients with rupture present with all of: hypotension, pain and a pulsatile mass
C. Rupture can present with gastrointestinal bleeding
D. Tenderness on palpation is a sign of rupture


Question 10# Print Question

A 63-year-old man with atrial fibrillation had pelvic radiotherapy 2 months ago. He now presents with lower abdominal pain, diarrhoea, rectal bleeding and tenesmus.

What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A. Radiation proctocolitis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Infective colitis
D. Ischaemic colitis




Category: Emergency Medicine--->Surgical Emergencies
Page: 2 of 8